Neddie Seagoon
2024-08-12 10:45:44 UTC
All,
I should be grateful for your thoughts on the following situation:
1 My landlord - a not-for-profit company - holds an annual meeting, as
required by the lease, to present the accounts to its tenants. Questions are
permitted.
2 In recent years, the landlord's 'record' of the meeting (the company
flatly refuses to use the word 'minutes') has become increasingly
...selective. Anything which reflects well on the landlord is included. Mild
criticisms are watered down. Direct challenges, incorrect information and our
requests for further information are simply not documented.
Long story short: no reasonably accurate record exists of what tenants are
being told at these meetings.
3 A group of us has started to make our own record of the meeting. Notes are
taken. A draft document is prepared and circulated to the tenants who attended
the meeting. Comments are incorporated and a final version published to all
tenants.
4 As a courtesy, we advised the landlord we would be doing this. The precise
words were:
"You are aware of the serious differences between the residents' records of
last year's Autumn Meeting and the record published by [the landlord]. It is
obvious that both sides need an objective and accurate record. Please be
advised that we propose to record future meetings."
5 What we *meant* to say was that we would be writing our own minutes.
However, the landlord has assumed we meant a voice recording and written to
say:
"I do not recall anyone at the last meeting requesting permission from those
present to have the meeting recorded and so I hope that it wasn’t recorded.
Had anyone made such a request I’m afraid we would not have been able to give
our consent."
6 It is my turn to minute the next annual meeting.
A major topic for the tenants will be the landlord's management of a recent,
very expensive redecoration project. We are anticipating referring the matter
to a First-tier Tribunal.
I want to ensure my record of the upcoming meeting will be as accurate as
possible. Having a recording to aid my written notes is bound to be helpful.
7 I've looked at a number of online UK legal sites regarding RIPA and GDPR.
My reading is that providing:
a) the recording is for my private use only; AND
b) I do not share the recording with anyone or publish it in any way
then it is lawful, for the purposes of para 6 above, for me to make a voice
recording of the meeting:
c) whether or not I notify any of the parties involved;
d) irrespective of one party "refusing permission" for me to do so.
Is my inference correct?
I would appreciate the group's thoughts and/or real-world suggestions.
Thanks,
Ned
I should be grateful for your thoughts on the following situation:
1 My landlord - a not-for-profit company - holds an annual meeting, as
required by the lease, to present the accounts to its tenants. Questions are
permitted.
2 In recent years, the landlord's 'record' of the meeting (the company
flatly refuses to use the word 'minutes') has become increasingly
...selective. Anything which reflects well on the landlord is included. Mild
criticisms are watered down. Direct challenges, incorrect information and our
requests for further information are simply not documented.
Long story short: no reasonably accurate record exists of what tenants are
being told at these meetings.
3 A group of us has started to make our own record of the meeting. Notes are
taken. A draft document is prepared and circulated to the tenants who attended
the meeting. Comments are incorporated and a final version published to all
tenants.
4 As a courtesy, we advised the landlord we would be doing this. The precise
words were:
"You are aware of the serious differences between the residents' records of
last year's Autumn Meeting and the record published by [the landlord]. It is
obvious that both sides need an objective and accurate record. Please be
advised that we propose to record future meetings."
5 What we *meant* to say was that we would be writing our own minutes.
However, the landlord has assumed we meant a voice recording and written to
say:
"I do not recall anyone at the last meeting requesting permission from those
present to have the meeting recorded and so I hope that it wasn’t recorded.
Had anyone made such a request I’m afraid we would not have been able to give
our consent."
6 It is my turn to minute the next annual meeting.
A major topic for the tenants will be the landlord's management of a recent,
very expensive redecoration project. We are anticipating referring the matter
to a First-tier Tribunal.
I want to ensure my record of the upcoming meeting will be as accurate as
possible. Having a recording to aid my written notes is bound to be helpful.
7 I've looked at a number of online UK legal sites regarding RIPA and GDPR.
My reading is that providing:
a) the recording is for my private use only; AND
b) I do not share the recording with anyone or publish it in any way
then it is lawful, for the purposes of para 6 above, for me to make a voice
recording of the meeting:
c) whether or not I notify any of the parties involved;
d) irrespective of one party "refusing permission" for me to do so.
Is my inference correct?
I would appreciate the group's thoughts and/or real-world suggestions.
Thanks,
Ned